• WhoLooksHere@lemmy.world
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    3 months ago

    They were specifically told the itinerary of the aid workers.

    https://abcnews.go.com/amp/International/world-central-kitchen-jacob-flickinger-partner/story?id=108866378

    “All three vehicles were carrying civilians; they were marked as WCK vehicles; and their movements were in full compliance with Israeli authorities, who were aware of their itinerary, route, and humanitarian mission,” WCK said in a statement Thursday.

    I’m not sure how it can be accidental if you were told about it in advance.

    And even if for a moment, that the person who aimed the guns didn’t know, it was someone’s job to make sure they did. Someone knew.

    • LibertyLizard@slrpnk.net
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      3 months ago

      Someone did but it could still be claimed to be “accidental” if that information didn’t make it to the person performing the attack. I’m not saying that’s what happened but it’s plausible. Though I will say at minimum I doubt they would have done this if they knew how well connected these aid workers were. It would have been politically very foolish.

      I think their overall strategy makes it clear that they don’t much care to avoid killing civilians and aid workers that are not well connected. But it’s hard to prove it’s done intentionally.

      • catloaf@lemm.ee
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        3 months ago

        It’s very hard to prove their intent.

        It’s very easy to prove their negligence.

        We don’t know that they targeted aid workers. We can certainly say that they killed them without identifying them as valid military targets, because they weren’t.

        • LibertyLizard@slrpnk.net
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          3 months ago

          I completely agree but legally speaking the intentionality does matter in terms of the genocide case, etc. So that’s why I am curious what evidence we have. But intent is almost always the hardest piece of a crime to prove.

          • WhoLooksHere@lemmy.world
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            3 months ago

            legally speaking

            Which law?

            Because US law requires intent, but I’m not sure ICC/ICJ have the same requirements.

            • LibertyLizard@slrpnk.net
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              3 months ago

              From the ICC’s web page:

              First, the crime of genocide is characterised by the specific intent to destroy in whole or in part a national, ethnic, racial or religious group by killing its members or by other means: causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; or forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.

              Note the repeated reference to deliberate or intentional actions. So proving intent is a big question in this case.

      • thesporkeffect@lemmy.world
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        3 months ago

        Why are you trying this hard to pretend there is more than one side to this situation? People have given you the facts and you keep snapping back to this CNN passive-voice “we can’t know for sure”.

        • LibertyLizard@slrpnk.net
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          3 months ago

          Because that’s the default response to truth claims that are unproven? I don’t think this hyper-emotional speculation is very helpful personally.

          I don’t really care about your emotions or frankly any emotions other than the people directly affected. I’m trying to sort out what is true and false and what can be definitively proven from the available evidence. But there is a ton of misinformation flying around, so I want to be careful about what narratives I endorse, since many false narratives are being used to justify violence and hatred right now.